where:
d1 = [ln(S/K) + (r + σ²/2)T] / (σ√T)
d2 = d1 - σ√T
Assuming that:
C = The price of the call option.
S = The current market price of the underlying asset.
K = The strike price of the option.
r = The annualized risk-free interest rate.
T = The time to expiration, in years.
σ (sigma) = The volatility of the underlying asset's returns.
N(x) = The cumulative standard normal distribution function, which gives the probability of a random variable from a standard normal distribution being less than x. In our case, x = d2.
e = The mathematical constant for the base of the natural logarithm.
Yes, it's very complicated, and frankly, it's not necessarily even a fully settled mathematical calculation. Numerous papers have been written on how to execute this model, but this is the generally accepted formula of the moment.
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